Is the gospel for all? Answering the Atheist

Inquiry:

Answering the Atheist, gospel

Should the gospel be preached to everyone? Some verses say it should be (Matthew 28:19; Mark 16:15; Acts 8:25; 15:3; 22:21; 28:28), but others say it should not be given to Gentiles or Samaritans (Matthew 10:5-6; 15:24; Acts 16:6). Is there a contradiction?

Response:

Since the Bible teaches that the gospel is for all, there is no need to address the affirmative verses listed. We will look at the three texts used in the negative by the questioner.

Matthew 10:5-6 & 15:24 do not exclude the Gentiles or Samaritans from receiving the gospel, but simply reveal that it was not part of the Lord’s mission in His earthly ministry. Eventually the gospel would go to the Gentiles and Samaritans (Acts 8:5, 14; 10:28-29, 34-35, 45). The plan to take the gospel to the world was “to the Jew first and also the Greek” (Romans 1:16; Luke 24:47; Acts 13:46). The woman at Samaria was told, “salvation is of the Jews,” and yet Jesus also revealed to her that

the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshippers will worship the Father in spirit and truth (John 4:22-23)

Acts 16:6 does indicate that the Spirit forbade Paul to go to Asia, but it does not support the questioner’s use of the text. He was in Phrygia and Galatia, and was going to Mysia, Troas and Macedonia. These are all Gentile areas, and throughout these areas, Gentiles heard and obeyed the gospel.

There is no contradiction.


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